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    Exam Review

    1. What are the common impacts of chronic kidney disease (CKD) on the cardiovascular system?
      A)
      Left ventricular hypertrophy and ischemia
      B)
      Decreased incidence of atherosclerosis and heart failure
      C)
      Enhanced cardiac contractility and reduced vascular resistance
      D)
      Increased risk of hypertension and hyperthyroidism
    2. A patient presents with fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, and a sore, red tongue. These symptoms are indicative of:
      A)
      Vitamin C deficiency
      B)
      Iron deficiency anemia
      C)
      Vitamin B-12 deficiency
      D)
      Folate deficiency
    3. A 35-year-old female presents to the clinic with symptoms of weight loss, anxiety, tremors, and a noticeable swelling in her neck. Her medical history demonstrates that she has a family history of thyroid disorders. Physical examination and laboratory tests confirm the diagnosis of Graves' disease. Which mechanism below best explains the pathophysiology of Graves' disease, a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction?
      A)
      Activation of complement proteins leading to tissue damage
      B)
      Formation of immune complexes in the thyroid tissue
      C)
      Production of autoantibodies targeting the thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor
      D)
      Delayed-type hypersensitivity response in the thyroid gland
    4. A patient with multiple risk factors, including hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and diabetes mellitus, develops coronary artery disease (CAD). What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism underlying the development of CAD in this patient?
      A)
      Thrombus leading to myocardial infarction
      B)
      Impaired coronary artery dilation due to endothelial dysfunction
      C)
      Vasospasm causing transient myocardial ischemia
      D)
      Atherosclerosis resulting in coronary artery narrowing
    Page 1 of 24

    Exam Review

    1. What does the term azotemia denote in the context of kidney function?
      A)
      Impaired glucose metabolism
      B)
      Elevated levels of nitrogen-containing compounds in the blood
      C)
      Insufficient production of red blood cells
      D)
      Excessive sodium retention
    2. In the pathophysiology of a urinary tract infection (UTI), what is the primary mechanism by which bacteria typically gain access to the urinary system?
      A)
      Direct extension from the bladder to the kidneys
      B)
      Hematogenous spread from distant infections
      C)
      Ascending migration from the urethra
      D)
      Lymphatic spread from adjacent structures
    3. A neonate born to an Rh-negative mother and an Rh-positive father is at risk for transient neonatal alloimmunity. Explain the mechanism underlying this phenomenon.
      A)
      Fetal antibodies against maternal Rh antigens
      B)
      Maternal antibodies against fetal Rh antigens
      C)
      Fetal T-cell activation against maternal Rh antigens
      D)
      Maternal T-cell activation against fetal Rh antigens
    4. During the assessment of a patient with asthma, which clinical finding is characteristic of airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction?
      A)
      Prolonged expiratory phase
      B)
      Increased peak expiratory flow rate
      C)
      Decreased respiratory rate
      D)
      Absence of wheezing
    Page 2 of 24

    Exam Review

    1. Which of the following statements best differentiates between primary and secondary immunodeficiency disorders?
      A)
      Primary immunodeficiency is acquired later in life, while secondary immunodeficiency is present at birth
      B)
      Primary immunodeficiency is a result of genetic defects in the immune system, while secondary immunodeficiency is associated with external factors that impair the immune function
      C)
      Primary immunodeficiency is caused by factors such as infections, medications, or underlying diseases, while secondary immunodeficiency is usually due to genetic mutations
      D)
      Primary immunodeficiency can be managed with immunosuppressive therapy, while secondary immunodeficiency often requires bone marrow transplantation
    2. To be diagnosed with dyslipidemia, which of the following lipid profile abnormalities is typically considered in the diagnostic criteria?
      A)
      Elevated high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol levels
      B)
      Decreased triglyceride levels
      C)
      Normal total cholesterol levels
      D)
      Elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol levels
    3. What is the primary mechanism underlying the pathophysiology of a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction?
      A)
      IgE mediated mast cell degranulation
      B)
      Activation of complement proteins
      C)
      T-cell mediated delayed hypersensitivity
      D)
      Antigen-antibody complex deposition in the body tissues
    4. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is classified as a secondary immunodeficiency disorder. Which of the following statements best explains why HIV is considered a secondary immunodeficiency?
      A)
      HIV results from genetic mutations in the immune system, leading to immune deficiency
      B)
      HIV is acquired later in life through environmental factors and affects immune function
      C)
      HIV is present from birth and primarily affects children and adolescents
      D)
      HIV is characterized by a complete absence of the immune system’s components
    Page 3 of 24

    Exam Review

    1. What is the consequence of decreased renal production of vitamin D on the body?
      A)
      Elevated levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH)
      B)
      Enhanced excretion of phosphate by the kidneys
      C)
      Impaired bone mineralization and increased risk of fractures
      D)
      Increased absorption of calcium from the intestine
    2. Why is dyslipidemia commonly observed in individuals with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
      A)
      Enhanced conversion of cholesterol to bile acids
      B)
      Decreased synthesis of lipoproteins in liver
      C)
      Increased sensitivity of adipose tissue to insulin
      D)
      Impaired clearance of lipoproteins by the kidneys
    3. In the treatment of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF), which medication is considered a mainstay of therapy in reducing preload?
      A)
      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
      B)
      Calcium channel blockers
      C)
      Diuretics
      D)
      Beta blockers
    4. A 60-year-old female reports involuntary urine leakage and seeks evaluation for her symptoms. During the assessment, the NP distinguishes between functional and urge incontinence. What is the key difference between functional and urge incontinence?
      A)
      Functional incontinence is often due to bladder outlet obstruction, while urge incontinence is linked to difficulties with mobility
      B)
      Functional incontinence is related to physical or cognitive impairments, while urge incontinence is characterized by detrusor muscle overactivity
      C)
      Functional incontinence is primarily caused by detrusor muscle overactivity, while urge incontinence is related to physical or cognitive impairments
      D)
      Functional incontinence is associated with a sudden, strong desire to void, while urge incontinence is related to physical limitations that hinder toileting
    Page 4 of 24

    Exam Review

    1. Which of the following best defines the concept of alloimmunity?
      A)
      Immune reactions triggered by non-pathogenic microorganisms
      B)
      An immune response against self-antigens
      C)
      Immune responses against allergens in the environment
      D)
      Immune reactions directed against transplanted tissues or cells from another individual
    2. What is a common cause of aortic regurgitation?
      A)
      Atherosclerosis of the aortic valve
      B)
      Infective endocarditis
      C)
      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
      D)
      Mitral valve stenosis
    3. In which type of heart failure is the presence of an S3 heart sound heard?
      A)
      Acute decompensated heart failure
      B)
      Systolic heart failure
      C)
      Diastolic heart failure
      D)
      Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF)
    4. What are the primary endocrine problems associated with chronic kidney disease?
      A)
      Hyperaldosteronism and hyperinsulinemia
      B)
      Hyperparathyroidism and hypothyroidism
      C)
      Hyperparathyroidism and insulin resistance D. Hyperthyroidism and adrenal insufficiency
    Page 5 of 24

    Exam Review

    1. What is the primary purpose of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol in the body?
      A)
      Transporting cholesterol to peripheral tissues
      B)
      Facilitating the formation of atherosclerotic plaques
      C)
      Transporting cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver
      D)
      Providing a structural component for cell membranes
    2. A 55-year-old patient with a history of hypertension, diabetes, and a family history of coronary artery disease (CAD) presents with chest pain and shortness of breath. Which risk factor is likely to contribute significantly to the development of CAD in this patient?
      A)
      Age
      B)
      Family history
      C)
      Diabetes
      D)
      Hypertension
    3. A client presents to the clinic with a skin rash, and the NP suspects it may be due to a hypersensitivity reaction. To differentiate between the rash of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction and a Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction, what characteristic feature should the NP consider?
      A)
      The rash in a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction is typically localized and erythematous, whereas the rash in a Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction is generalized and pruritic.
      B)
      The rash in a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction is usually associated with contact dermatitis, while the rash in a Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction is commonly seen in allergic reactions.
      C)
      The rash in a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction often involves hives or urticaria, while the rash in a Type 4 reaction is characterized by a delayed onset and epidermal blistering.
      D)
      The rash in a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction results from T-cell-mediated inflammation, whereas the rash in a Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction is primarily due to the activation of mast cells.
    4. In the assessment of heart failure, the ejection fraction (EF) is a crucial parameter. What does a reduced ejection fraction indicate in the context of heart failure?
      A)
      Increased compliance of the myocardium
      B)
      Inability of the heart to effectively pump blood
      C)
      Elevated diastolic filling pressures
      D)
      Impaired relaxation of the ventricle
    Page 6 of 24