NursGuru

    Exam Review

    1. A newborn with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/minute at 1 minute after birth is demonstrating cyanosis of the hands and feet. Which action should the nurse take?
      A)
      Rub the infant's back.
      B)
      Assess bowel sounds.
      C)
      Assist with intubation.
      D)
      Continue to monitor.
    2. The nurse reviews the client's history and physical to determine the cause of the client's symptoms. Highlight the information from the history and physical that requires further evaluation.
      (SATA)
      A)
      A primiparous client was induced at 41-weeks gestation with misoprostol and oxytocin.
      B)
      She gave birth vaginally 4 days ago, and her prenatal course and delivery were uncomplicated.
      C)
      Client called her healthcare provider (HCP) this morning with fatigue, new-onset of headache and pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen not relieved with ibuprofen.
      D)
      The client records a home blood pressure reading of 154/100 mm Hg.
    3. A 28‑year‑old primiparous client delivered vaginally 24 hours ago. She now reports a persistent headache, blurred vision, and right upper quadrant pain. Her blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg. The nurse suspects worsening preeclampsia and prepares to perform focused assessments. Which assessments should the nurse prioritize to evaluate for complications of preeclampsia? (Select all that apply.)
      (SATA)
      A)
      Fingerstick hemoglobin.
      B)
      Urine for protein.
      C)
      Lung sounds.
      D)
      Deep tendon reflexes.
      E)
      Perineal assessment.
      F)
      Skin turgor.
      G)
      Vision test.
    4. Based on the assessment findings, the priority diagnosis suspected is the client is at risk of:
      A)
      Worsening anemia.
      B)
      Preeclampsia.
      C)
      Dehydration.
      D)
      Eclampsia.

    Exam Review

    1. Based on the assessment findings, the priority diagnosis suspected is preeclampsia. This diagnosis places the client at risk for:
      A)
      Hemorrhage.
      B)
      Seizures.
      C)
      Migraines.
      D)
      Hypotension.
    2. The nurse is reviewing the client's laboratory results. The client is reporting a severe headache, nausea, and right-sided upper abdominal pain. The nurse notes deep tendon reflexes are 4+. What is the priority nursing intervention?
      A)
      Administering acetaminophen for the headache.
      B)
      Providing metoclopramide for the nausea.
      C)
      Monitoring for seizure activity.
      D)
      Preparing the client for a stat C-section.
      E)
      Encouraging the client to ambulate to the bathroom.
    3. A nurse is reviewing a client’s lab results. Two days ago, the hemoglobin was 11.2 g/dL, and today it is 10.4 g/dL. What does this change indicate?
      A)
      A normal, expected fluctuation in lab values.
      B)
      The client's fluid status is improving.
      C)
      The client is at increased risk for hemorrhage.
      D)
      The client is experiencing a worsening anemic state.
    4. The nurse knows that ____________ will help decrease blood pressure, while _____________ will help prevent seizures.
      A)
      morphine, magnesium sulfate.
      B)
      magnesium sulfate, hydralazine.
      C)
      hydralazine, lorazepam.
      D)
      hydralazine, magnesium sulfate.

    Exam Review

    1. What is the most likely cause of the client's symptoms, and what is the nurse's priority intervention?
      A)
      The client is experiencing an allergic reaction; the nurse should administer epinephrine immediately.
      B)
      The client has developed a urinary tract infection; the nurse should collect a urine sample for culture and sensitivity.
      C)
      The client is presenting with signs of preeclampsia; the nurse should monitor for seizure activity and administer prescribed medications.
      D)
      The client is experiencing a hypertensive crisis; the nurse should prepare for immediate surgery.
    2. The client has experienced an eclamptic seizure. Which of the following interventions by the nurse will help stabilize the client? Select all that apply.
      (SATA)
      A)
      Minimizing visitors.
      B)
      Ensuring side rails are padded.
      C)
      Assessing deep tendon reflexes.
      D)
      Explaining procedures.
      E)
      Evaluating for headache.
      F)
      Treating nausea.
      G)
      Evaluating blood pressure frequently.
      H)
      Assisting with breast pumping.
      I)
      Evaluating for breast pumping.
    3. A nurse is caring for a client with a recent diagnosis of preeclampsia. The client's laboratory results show a hemoglobin of 9.8 g/dL and a platelet count of 120,000/mm³. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for this client?
      A)
      Encourage a high-protein diet to increase hemoglobin levels.
      B)
      Initiate a blood transfusion to correct the low hemoglobin.
      C)
      Implement seizure precautions due to the low platelet count.
      D)
      Monitor for signs of bleeding or bruising.
    4. A client with preeclampsia is admitted to the hospital. The client's laboratory results indicate a lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level of 525 U/L and uric acid of 5.8 mg/dL. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
      A)
      Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section due to elevated LDH.
      B)
      Administering a medication to lower the uric acid level.
      C)
      Monitoring the client for signs of liver dysfunction.
      D)
      Restricting fluid intake to decrease uric acid levels.

    Exam Review

    1. A nurse is reviewing a client's vital signs and notes the following measurements: temperature 98.4° F, heart rate 88 beats/minute, respirations 16 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 167/107 mm Hg. What is the most appropriate nursing action based on these vital signs?
      A)
      Document the findings and continue routine monitoring.
      B)
      Administer a prescribed antihypertensive medication.
      C)
      Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
      D)
      Increase the frequency of vital sign measurements to every 15 minutes.
    2. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse notes the following vital signs: blood pressure 146/90 mm Hg at 1220 and 141/86 mm Hg at 1230. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
      A)
      Discontinue the magnesium sulfate infusion as the blood pressure has decreased.
      B)
      Decrease the dosage of the magnesium sulfate.
      C)
      Continue to monitor the client's vital signs as the blood pressure is trending in the right direction.
      D)
      Increase the frequency of blood pressure checks.
    3. A nurse is preparing to admit a client with severe preeclampsia. The healthcare provider's orders include establishing an IV, infusing lactated Ringer's at 125 mL/hour, giving hydralazine 5 mg IVP STAT, and magnesium sulfate 4 grams IV over 20 minutes followed by 2 grams/hour. What is the primary rationale for these orders?
      A)
      To prevent fluid overload and decrease cerebral edema.
      B)
      To manage hypertension and prevent seizures.
      C)
      To correct anemia and prevent complications.
      D)
      To reduce the risk of a pulmonary embolism.
    4. A 32-week multigravida client with a history of preeclampsia arrives to the clinic for her routine appointment. The nurse observes the client has an elevated blood pressure of 155/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take?
      A)
      Obtain a finger stick blood glucose.
      B)
      Observe the strength and time of contractions.
      C)
      Collect a urine specimen to screen for protein.
      D)
      Inquire about a history of migraines.

    Exam Review

    1. A client at 38-weeks gestation reports severe abdominal pain. Upon palpation, the nurse notes that the abdomen is rigid. How should the nurse document the findings?
      A)
      Placenta previa.
      B)
      Oligohydramnios.
      C)
      Abruptio placenta.
      D)
      Chorioamnionitis.
    2. The mother of a full-term infant who is breastfeeding is concerned that her newborn infant may "turn yellow," as she has heard newborns sometimes do. Which information is correct for the nurse to provide this new mother?
      A)
      Physiologic jaundice is normal, so there is no need to notify the healthcare provider even if the infant's jaundice worsens after discharge.
      B)
      Breastfed infants who are fed frequently are no more likely to develop jaundice than bottle-fed infants.
      C)
      If the infant becomes jaundiced, supplements with formula should be provided every other feeding to decrease the serum bilirubin.
      D)
      Jaundice usually accompanies prematurity, and since this infant was full term, jaundice should not be a problem.
    3. When developing a teaching plan for a client at 8 weeks gestation, which instruction has the highest priority?
      A)
      Try eating crackers when you first feel nauseated.
      B)
      Call the clinic if you have any vaginal bleeding or cramping.
      C)
      You should enroll in this month's childbirth preparation classes.
      D)
      Eat a well-balanced diet using this printed diet instruction sheet.
    4. A one-day-old neonate develops a cephalhematoma. The nurse should closely assess this neonate for which common complication?
      A)
      Brain damage.
      B)
      Poor appetite.
      C)
      Jaundice.
      D)
      Hypoglycemia.

    Exam Review

    1. A client at 17-weeks gestation expels the products of conception in her bed. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
      A)
      Assess for uterine bleeding and fundal firmness.
      B)
      Provide emotional support to the family.
      C)
      Notify the healthcare provider of the client's status.
      D)
      Remove the expelled material from the bed.
    2. A client who is HIV positive is receiving zidovudine during labor. Which information should the nurse provide to the client?
      A)
      The drug treats fungal infections associated with HIV.
      B)
      The medication is given for treatment of chorioamnionitis.
      C)
      This treatment helps prevent transmission of the virus to the fetus.
      D)
      This intervention helps to prevent HIV complications in the mother.
    3. A nurse is planning to administer betamethasone to a gravid client. Which client is most likely to receive this prescription?
      A)
      A client who is 16-weeks gestation and is experiencing vaginal bleeding and cramping.
      B)
      A client who is 37-weeks gestation and whose cervix is 7 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and a -1 station.
      C)
      A client who is 38-weeks gestation and whose amniotic membranes ruptured at home 24 hours ago.
      D)
      A client who is 30-weeks gestation and is contracting regularly and exhibiting cervical change.
    4. The nurse is conducting developmental screening for children in the pediatric clinic. A parent expresses concern that the 14-month-old is not yet walking independently, and their adult sibling's child is walking at 10 months of age. Which concept should the nurse use to provide information to the parent?
      A)
      The underlying stimuli for physiologic changes are based on aggressive energies and the libido.
      B)
      Development occurs in a series of subconscious stages that are impacted by social experiences.
      C)
      Each child's pattern of biological development is unique, yet proceeds according to a genetic blueprint.
      D)
      Intelligence proceeds when new information is adapted to the child's preexisting stage of development.