Exam Review
- A 41-week pregnant multigravida presents in the labor and delivery unit after a nonstress test indicated that her fetus could be experiencing some difficulties in utero. Which non-invasive diagnostic tool would yield more detailed information about the current well-being of the fetus?A)Ultrasound for structural anomalies of the fetus.B)Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein screening.C)Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling.D)Biophysical profile.
- A client asks her nurse, "My doctor told me that he is concerned with the age of my placenta because I am overdue. What does that mean?" The best response by the nurse is:A)Your placenta ages and changes as your pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that indicates a number of calcium deposits it has. The more calcium deposits, the higher the grade, or number, that is assigned to the placenta. It also means that less blood and oxygen can be delivered to your baby.B)Don't worry about it. Everything is fine.C)This means that we will need to perform an amniocentesis to detect if you have any placental damage.D)Your placenta isn't working properly, and your baby is in danger.
- When nurses help their expectant mothers assess the daily fetal movement counts (Kick counts) they should be aware that:A)The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours.B)Obese mothers familiar with their bodies can assess fetal movement as well as average-sized women.C)Alcohol or cigarette smoke can irritate the fetus into greater activity.D)Kick counts should be taken every half hour and averaged every 6 hours, with every other 6-hour stretch off.
- A primigravida is being monitored in her prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. What finding should indicate that more investigation needs to be done regarding the patient and her preeclampsia?A)A dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine.B)Blood pressure increase to 128/76 mm Hg.C)Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks.D)Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day.
Exam Review
- The labor of a pregnant woman with preeclampsia is going to be induced. Before initiating the Pitocin infusion, the nurse reviews the woman's latest laboratory test findings, which reveal a low platelet count of 90,000, an elevated aspartate transaminase (AST) level (liver enzymes), and a falling hematocrit. The nurse notifies the physician because the lab results are indicative of:A)Disseminated intravascular coagulation.B)Idiopathic thrombocytopenia.C)HELLP syndrome.D)Eclampsia.
- A pregnant woman has been receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion for treatment of severe preeclampsia for 24 hours. On assessment, the nurse finds the following vital signs: temperature of 37.3° C, pulse rate of 88 beats/min, respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min, blood pressure of 148/90 mm Hg, absent deep tendon reflexes, and no ankle clonus. The client complains, "I'm so thirsty and warm.”. The nurse:A)Discontinues the magnesium sulfate infusion and notifies the provider.B)Prepares to administer hydralazine.C)Administers oxygen.D)Calls for a stat magnesium sulfate level.
- Which daily medication would the nurse anticipate the provider recommending to a pregnant client who is high-risk for developing preeclampsia?A)Labetalol.B)Magnesium Sulfate.C)Low-dose aspirin.D)Heparin.
- Your client has been on magnesium sulfate for 20 hours for treatment of preeclampsia.She just delivered a viable infant girl 30 minutes ago. What uterine findings would you anticipate to observe/assess in this client?A)A boggy uterus with heavy lochia flow.B)A fundus firm below the level of the umbilicus.C)Scant lochia flow.D)Absence of uterine bleeding in the postpartum period.
Exam Review
- The nurse caring for pregnant women must be aware that the most common medical complication of pregnancy is:A)Infections.B)Hemorrhagic complications.C)Hyperemesis gravidarum.D)Hypertensive Disorders of Pregnancy.
- Nurses should be aware that HELLP syndrome:A)Is associated with preterm labor but not perinatal mortality.B)Is characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets.C)Is a mild form of preeclampsia.D)Can be diagnosed by a nurse alert to its symptoms.
- Magnesium sulfate is given to women with preeclampsia and eclampsia to:A)Shorten the duration of labor.B)Improve patellar reflexes and increase respiratory efficiency.C)Prevent and treat convulsions.D)Prevent a boggy uterus and lessen lochial flow.
- The most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae (as opposed to placenta previa) is:A)Bleeding.B)Intense abdominal pain.C)Cramping.D)Uterine activity.
Exam Review
- A 26-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 2, para 1-0-0-1 is 28 weeks pregnant when she experiences bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. Upon her arrival at the hospital, what would be an expected diagnostic procedure needed to shed more light on the source of bleeding?A)Ultrasound for placental location.B)Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity.C)Contraction stress test.D)Internal fetal monitoring.
- In planning for the care of a 30-year-old woman with pregestational diabetes, the nurse recognizes that the most important factor affecting pregnancy outcome is the:A)Amount of insulin required prenatally.B)Number of years since diabetes was diagnosed.C)Mother's age.D)Degree of glycemic control during pregnancy.
- The nurse is obtaining the list of medications that the patient is taking during the first prenatal appointment and 8 weeks of pregnancy. Which medication would the nurse report to the physician as a concern?A)Nifedipine.B)Hydralazine.C)Lisinopril.D)Labetalol.
- The perinatal nurse is giving discharge instructions to a woman, status post suction curettage secondary to a hydatidiform mole. The woman asks why the doctor is recommending that she take oral contraceptives for at least 6 months. The best response from the nurse would be:A)If you can avoid a pregnancy for the next year, the chance of developing a second molar pregnancy is rare. Therefore, to improve your chance of a successful pregnancy, it is better not to get pregnant at this time.B)Oral contraceptives are the only form of birth control that will prevent a recurrence of a molar pregnancy.C)The major risk to you after a molar pregnancy is a type of cancer that can be diagnosed only by measuring the same hormone that your body produces during pregnancy. If you were to get pregnant, it would make the diagnosis of this cancer more difficult.D)If you get pregnant within 1 year, the chance of a successful pregnancy is very small. Therefore, if you desire a future pregnancy, it would be better for you to use the most reliable method of contraception available.
Exam Review
- Methotrexate is recommended as part of the treatment plan for which obstetric complication?A)Missed abortion.B)Abruptio placentae.C)Unruptured ectopic pregnancy.D)Complete hydatidiform mole.
- Preconception counseling is critical to the outcome of diabetic pregnancies because poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy is associated with:A)Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia.B)Hyperemesis gravidarum.C)Polyhydramnios.D)Congenital anomalies in the fetus.
- Screening at 24 weeks of gestation reveals that a pregnant woman has Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM). In planning her care, the nurse and the woman mutually agree that an expected outcome is to prevent injury to the fetus as a result of GDM. The nurse identifies that the fetus is at greatest risk for:A)Low birth weight.B)Congenital anomalies of the central nervous system.C)Macrosomia.D)Preterm birth.
- The nurse caring for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum would expect that initial treatment would involve:A)Intravenous (IV) therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances.B)Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.C)An antiemetic, such as pyridoxine, to control nausea and vomiting.D)Enteral nutrition to correct nutritional deficits.
Exam Review
- The most effective and least expensive treatment of puerperal infection is prevention. What is important in this strategy?A)Limited protein and fat intake.B)Prophylactic antibiotics.C)Large doses of vitamin C during pregnancy.D)Strict aseptic technique, including handwashing, by all health care personnel.
- A woman with preeclampsia has a seizure. The nurse's primary duty during the seizure is to:A)Administer oxygen by mask.B)Insert an oral airway.C)Take the blood pressure.D)Stay with the client to insure safety and call for help.
- A woman at 39 weeks of gestation with a history of preeclampsia is admitted to the labor and birth unit. She suddenly experiences increased contraction frequency of every 1 to 2 minutes, dark red vaginal bleeding, and a tense, painful abdomen. The nurse suspects the onset of:A)Abruptio placentae.B)Placenta previa.C)Eclamptic seizure.D)Rupture of the uterus.
- Your client is being induced because of her worsening preeclampsia. She is also receiving magnesium sulfate. It appears that her labor has not become active despite several hours of oxytocin administration. She asks the nurse, "Why is it taking so long?" The most appropriate response by the nurse would be:A)"I don't know why it is taking so long.”.B)"The length of labor varies for different women.”.C)"The magnesium is relaxing your uterus and competing with the oxytocin. It may increase the duration of your labor.”.D)"Your baby is just being stubborn.”. —