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    Exam Review

    1. The NP is seeing a patient who has a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) and diabetes type 2. The patient denies a prior myocardial infarction or structural heart disease. Which of the following stages of heart failure is the patient in?
      A)
      Stage C
      B)
      Stage A
      C)
      Stage B
      D)
      Stage D
    2. A patient with GERD has been prescribed a proton-pump inhibitor (PPI). The patient returns to the office for follow-up and reports relief from heartburn but has some occasional breakthrough symptoms. Based on the NP's evaluation of the patient's report, what is the next best action by the NP?
      A)
      Inquire about the timing and adherence to the medication
      B)
      Increase the dose of the PPI
      C)
      Advise the patient to discontinue the PPI
      D)
      Add an H2 receptor antagonist
    3. Which of the following is a characteristic of Crohn's disease?
      A)
      Transmural inflammation with skip lesions
      B)
      Continuous inflammation involving the entire colon
      C)
      Superficial inflammation limited to the mucosal layer
      D)
      Presence of pseudopolyps and cobblestone appearance
    4. The NP is examining a patient suspected of having hyperthyroidism. Which of the following is a common physical exam finding that indicates hyperthyroidism?
      A)
      Dry skin
      B)
      Difficulty swallowing
      C)
      Bradycardia
      D)
      Goiter
    Page 1 of 25

    Exam Review

    1. What is the underlying pathophysiology contributing to the development of ascites in cirrhosis of the liver?
      A)
      Portal hypertension
      B)
      Impaired bile secretion and cholestasis
      C)
      Increased hepatic synthesis of clotting factors
      D)
      Excessive production of liver enzymes
    2. The NP prescribed levothyroxine 25 micrograms (mcg) daily for a patient diagnosed with hypothyroidism. In a follow-up visit one month after starting the levothyroxine, the NP concludes that the current dose is appropriate based on which of the following?
      A)
      The TSH is just slightly above the upper limit of the reference range
      B)
      The TSH is within the normal reference range
      C)
      The T3 level is within the normal reference range
      D)
      The T3 level is slightly below the reference range
    3. Increasing evidence reveals that pharmacotherapy alone is not effective in preventing the recurrences of bipolar disorder. Which strategy below is recommended in the treatment of bipolar disorder?
      A)
      Individual counseling
      B)
      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
      C)
      Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
      D)
      Psychosocial interventions
    4. Which statement below best describes the main difference between contact dermatitis and atopic dermatitis?
      A)
      Atopic dermatitis is a localized reaction to irritants, whereas contact dermatitis involves a systemic immune response
      B)
      Contact dermatitis is primarily caused by allergens, while atopic dermatitis is an inflammatory skin condition
      C)
      Atopic dermatitis is characterized by direct skin contact with irritants, while contact dermatitis is an inherited condition with a genetic predisposition
      D)
      Contact dermatitis is chronic and often genetic, while atopic dermatitis is an acute skin reaction triggered by specific substances
    Page 2 of 25

    Exam Review

    1. Which of the following symptoms would signify major depression in a client?
      A)
      Loss of interest and pleasure
      B)
      Decreased need for sleep
      C)
      Inflated self-esteem
      D)
      Racing thoughts
    2. In a client with cirrhosis of the liver, how would the NP recognize the initial development of hepatic encephalopathy?
      A)
      Elevated serum bilirubin levels
      B)
      Subtle changes in personality and memory loss
      C)
      Increased liver enzymes
      D)
      Progressive jaundice and dark urine
    3. An adolescent presents with acne vulgaris. Which of the following clinical features is commonly associated with this condition?
      A)
      Annular erythematous plaques with a scaly border
      B)
      Pruritic papules with a central umbilication
      C)
      Comedones, papules, and pustules primarily on the face and upper trunk
      D)
      Vesicles on an erythematous base arranged in a dermatomal pattern
    4. A 65-year-old male presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset weakness on one side of his body, difficulty speaking, and confusion. The symptoms started approximately 45 minutes ago. The patient has a history of hypertension and smoking. The initial assessment suggests a potential stroke. What is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?
      A)
      Order a non-contrast head CT scan
      B)
      Administer thrombolytic therapy immediately
      C)
      Start high-dose aspirin therapy
      D)
      Perform a lumbar puncture to assess cerebrospinal fluid
    Page 3 of 25

    Exam Review

    1. Which of the following is a goal of treatment for urinary calculi?
      A)
      Managing acute pain
      B)
      Preventing chronic renal failure
      C)
      Preventing infection
      D)
      Decreasing the urine flow rate
    2. A 24-year-old female presents to the primary care clinic with symptoms of an uncomplicated lower urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following symptoms is an uncomplicated symptom?
      A)
      Hematuria
      B)
      Urinary frequency
      C)
      Costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness
      D)
      Fever
    3. What is the primary pathological process underlying the microvascular complications of diabetes, such as diabetic nephropathy?
      A)
      Impaired production of nitric oxide
      B)
      Hyperplasia of vascular smooth muscle cells
      C)
      Autoimmune destruction of microvessels
      D)
      Formation of advanced glycation end-products (AGEs)
    4. An individual presents to the clinic with symptoms suggestive of multiple sclerosis (MS). Which of the following risk factors is associated with an increased likelihood of developing MS?
      A)
      Smoking
      B)
      Low caffeine intake
      C)
      Low magnesium level
      D)
      Strenuous physical exercise
    Page 4 of 25

    Exam Review

    1. Which characteristics below are commonly associated with actinic keratosis?
      A)
      Grouped vesicles on an erythematous base, following a dermatomal pattern
      B)
      Well-defined pink or red nodules with central umbilication
      C)
      Hyperpigmented macules with irregular borders
      D)
      Rough, scaly, or crusty lesions on sun-exposed skin
    2. Why are transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) considered dangerous and warrant prompt medical attention?
      A)
      TIAs can cause irreversible brain damage
      B)
      TIAs are always indicative of an impending stroke
      C)
      TIAs may serve as warning signs of an increased risk of a subsequent stroke
      D)
      TIAs are associated with immediate loss of consciousness
    3. The NP is examining the chest x-ray of a patient with COPD. Which result is most likely in a COPD patient?
      A)
      Enlarged heart
      B)
      Flattened diaphragm
      C)
      Bulging diaphragm
      D)
      Elongated diaphragm
    4. A patient presents with facial redness, visible blood vessels, and small, red, pus-filled bumps resembling acne on the central face. The patient reports flushing episodes triggered by various factors such as spicy foods and alcohol. What is the most likely diagnosis?
      A)
      Eczema
      B)
      Acne vulgaris
      C)
      Rosacea
      D)
      Contact dermatitis
    Page 5 of 25

    Exam Review

    1. What characteristic feature distinguishes alcoholic from non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)?
      A)
      Presence of hepatomegaly
      B)
      Fibrosis predominantly in the perivenular areas
      C)
      Association with excessive alcohol consumption
      D)
      Accumulation of fat in hepatocytes
    2. Which of the following statements best describes the role of the hypothalamus in hormone regulation?
      A)
      The hypothalamus receives sensory information and integrates it to regulate hormone secretion from the pituitary gland
      B)
      The hypothalamus controls the synthesis of insulin in the pancreas
      C)
      The hypothalamus directly produces and releases hormones into the bloodstream
      D)
      The hypothalamus stores and releases hormones produced by the adrenal glands
    3. A 72-year-old female reports a sudden loss of bladder control and having to immediately go to the bathroom due to an intense need to urinate. These symptoms are characteristic of which type of incontinence?
      A)
      Overflow incontinence
      B)
      Functional incontinence
      C)
      Stress incontinence
      D)
      Urge incontinence
    4. A patient with a long-standing history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and pulmonary hypertension presents to the clinic with hepatosplenomegaly, right jugular vein distension, and peripheral edema. Based on the symptoms, which of the following can the NP conclude?
      A)
      The patient's right heart failure is due to left heart failure
      B)
      The patient has left-sided heart failure
      C)
      The patient has biventricular heart failure
      D)
      The patient has right heart failure in the absence of left heart failure
    Page 6 of 25