NursGuru

    Exam Review

    1. A patient at 4 cm dilation asks for an epidural. Which factor does the nurse understand is a contraindication for an epidural for this patient?
      A)
      She has a Hgb of 9 mg/dL.
      B)
      She has a platelet count of 120,000.
      C)
      She takes Lovenox for a clotting disorder.
      D)
      Her B/P is 142/95. —
    2. In the first 20 minutes after a client has received an epidural for labor, the nurse should be alert for which complication?
      A)
      Decreased sensation of the lower extremities.
      B)
      Epidural blood patch requirement.
      C)
      Maternal hypotension.
      D)
      Variable decelerations.
    3. A patient is to receive 8 mcg/min of Pitocin. There is 1000 mL Lactated Ringers with 30 units of Pitocin. How many mL/hr should you set the pump? Instructions: Round to the nearest TENTHS place. Enter numeric answer only.
      Correct Answer:16.0 mL/hr
    4. A pregnant woman at 29 weeks of gestation presents to the emergency room with epigastric pain, RUQ pain, and headache. History: 39 years old, NKDA, G4T1P1A1L2. VS BP: 158/98 HR: 92 RR: 20 Temp: 98.0. Labs show elevated liver enzymes, normal RBCs, and platelet count of 90,000. Her urine shows 2+ protein. What is the primary goal of care for this patient?
      A)
      Prepare for emergency C-section.
      B)
      Initiate anti-seizure protocol and continuous EFM.
      C)
      Administer high-dose diuretics to reduce edema.
      D)
      Monitor fetal movement counts twice a day.

    Exam Review

    1. Which three potential complications and three parameters to monitor are relevant based on the patient scenario presented in the case study?
      (SATA)
      A)
      Potential Complications: Dehydration, Placental abruption, Eclampsia.
      B)
      Potential Complications: V site tenderness, Magnesium toxicity, Early Decels.
      C)
      Parameters to Monitor: BP Q15, DTRs, Hourly neuro checks.
      D)
      Parameters to Monitor: NST BID, BP Q4, Early Decels.
    2. The nurse tells the patient that once the pudendal block is working she will have which of the following effects?
      A)
      She will not feel her perineum.
      B)
      She may lose control of her legs.
      C)
      She will no longer feel contractions.
      D)
      She will lose the ability to push.
    3. A labor and delivery nurse is caring for a low-risk pregnant client in active labor who plans on an unmedicated birth. The nurse recognizes the importance of appropriate positioning to facilitate labor progress. Which maternal position is most likely to enhance fetal descent and engagement during labor?
      A)
      Side-lying.
      B)
      Recumbent position.
      C)
      Lithotomy position with legs in stirrups.
      D)
      Standing.
    4. A woman at 39 weeks gestation with a history of preeclampsia is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. She suddenly experiences increased contraction frequency of every 1 to 2 minutes with non-relaxed resting tone, dark red vaginal bleeding, and a tense, painful abdomen. The nurse suspects the onset of which complication?
      A)
      Abruptio placentae.
      B)
      Placenta previa.
      C)
      Eclamptic seizure.
      D)
      Rupture of the uterus.

    Exam Review

    1. After delivery of the fetal head, shoulder dystocia is called by the provider. The nurse calls for extra nursing support and after about a minute of McRobert's maneuver and suprapubic pressure, the fetus is still not delivered. What should the next preferred course of action be?
      A)
      Apply firm fundal pressure to assist delivery.
      B)
      Vacuum extraction.
      C)
      Assist the woman to the hand-and-knees position.
      D)
      Prepare for a stat cesarean delivery.
    2. A nurse reviews the medications ordered for a client at 25 weeks that was transported from a tertiary hospital. Which of the following medications is NOT an indicated tocolytic to promote cessation of contractions?
      A)
      Nifedipine (Procardia).
      B)
      Indomethacin (Indocin).
      C)
      Misoprostol (Cytotec).
      D)
      Terbutaline (Brethine).
    3. A 27-year-old woman is being induced at 38 + 2 weeks for preeclampsia. Her most recent exam reveals that she is 8/75/0. The nurse notices that the patient has just started having late decelerations. The most appropriate action for the nurse is:
      A)
      Reposition to left lateral.
      B)
      Continue to monitor.
      C)
      Bolus 1 liter of Lactated Ringers (LR).
      D)
      Increase the Pitocin (oxytocin).
      E)
      Increase the Pitocin (oxytocin).
    4. A primigravida woman in labor is experiencing contractions every 9 minutes that palpate mild to moderate in intensity. Spontaneous rupture of membranes (SROM) occurred 8 hours ago, and her last cervical check was 30 minutes ago. The patient was 5 cm. Assessment reveals an estimated fetal weight of 7 pounds. Which medication should the nurse expect to administer?
      A)
      Betamethasone (Celestone).
      B)
      Oxytocin (Pitocin).
      C)
      Terbutaline (Brethine).
      D)
      Stadol (butorphanol) or Demerol (meperidine).

    Exam Review

    1. The nurse understands a contraindication for using Pitocin (oxytocin) in a laboring patient is:
      A)
      Diabetes.
      B)
      Preeclampsia.
      C)
      Premature rupture of membranes (PROM).
      D)
      Complete placenta previa.
    2. The nurse is assigned to care for a patient at 26 weeks and 3 days that is going to the operating room for an appendectomy and then will be assigned to recover this patient. Which of the following is a priority in the Post-Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU) for an obstetrical patient?
      A)
      Left tilt positioning and Electronic Fetal Monitoring (EFM).
      B)
      Continuous pulse oximetry.
      C)
      Cardiac monitoring.
      D)
      Strict intake and output measurement.
    3. Your patient is ordered to have Ancef 990 mg slow IV push. The pharmacy sends Ancef 175 mg/mL. How many mL will you give? If >1 mL, round to the TENTHS place. If <1 mL, round to the HUNDREDTHS place. Enter numeric value only.
    4. The nurse is walking through the lobby as a patient walks through the hospital entrance, bending over, breathing heavily, and crying, yelling, "The baby is coming now!" The nurse notes that the head is crowning. What is the nursing priority?
      A)
      Position hands to support the perineum during the delivery of the fetal head.
      B)
      Return to the emergency room to get help and an Emergency OB pack.
      C)
      Assist her to delay delivery by holding the baby's head in until help arrives.
      D)
      Tell her to hold her breath and push.

    Exam Review

    1. The fetal head is engaged and is down in the lower part of the mother's uterus. The mother's pelvis and fetal head are aligned in this way: the occiput of the fetus is the presenting part and is on the right side of the maternal pelvis. This position is termed:
      A)
      Left Occiput Transverse.
      B)
      Right Occiput Transverse.
      C)
      Occiput Posterior.
      D)
      Right Occiput Anterior.
    2. A G1T0P0A0L0 presents to Labor and Delivery triage at 30 weeks gestation with rupture of membranes approximately 1 hour ago. History includes a urinary tract infection at 14 weeks, no surgical or medical history. Vitals signs include BP 118/72, HR 72, RR 20, T 99°F. A moderate amount of clear fluid is noted on the pad. The provider performs a sterile vaginal examination that is 1 centimeter dilated, 20
      A)
      Administer oxytocin to induce labor.
      B)
      Administer the first dose of antenatal steroids.
      C)
      Continuous fetal monitoring.
      D)
      Administer prophylactic intravenous antibiotics as ordered.
      E)
      Prepare discharge instructions with OB triage warning signs.
      F)
      Prepare for an emergency Cesarean-section delivery.
    3. A G1T0P0A0L0 is admitted to the antepartum unit for routine monitoring after presenting to Labor and Delivery triage at 30 weeks gestation with rupture of membranes approximately 1 hour ago. History includes a urinary tract infection at 14 weeks, no surgical or medical history. Vitals signs include BP 118/72, HR 72, RR 20, T 99°F. A moderate amount of clear fluid is noted on the pad. The provider performs a sterile vaginal examination that is 1 centimeter dilated, 20
      A)
      Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome.
      B)
      Umbilical cord compression.
      C)
      Placental abruption.
      D)
      Infection (chorioamnionitis)
    4. On day 3 in the hospital (78 hours with PPROM), the antepartum nurse places the ultrasound and TOCO for daily non-stress test. The monitor shows a Fetal Heart Rate of 165 beats per minute with minimal variability and 10x accelerations, and the nurse suspects a developing infection. What other assessment items contribute to signs of infection?
      A)
      White Blood Cell count of 11,000 pink tinged amniotic fluid.
      B)
      2+ pitting edema on lower extremities.
      C)
      Maternal heart rate of 108 beats per minute.
      D)
      Maternal temperature of 100.4°F and foul-smelling amniotic fluid.
      E)
      Maternal respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
      F)
      Hypotension and decreased urinary output.

    Exam Review

    1. When creating a care plan for a woman in labor who is requesting an epidural for pain relief, the nurse acknowledges that the initial nursing intervention to prepare for the epidural is:
      A)
      Give an intravenous fluid bolus.
      B)
      Verify she is at least 4 centimeters dilated.
      C)
      Give a gastric acidifying agent.
      D)
      Place a Foley catheter.
    2. When providing patient education to a pregnant client recently diagnosed with Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM), which key topics should the nurse prioritize to ensure the client's understanding and effective self-management of GDM during pregnancy?
      A)
      Emphasize the need for rigorous daily exercise to control blood sugar levels.
      B)
      Discuss the importance of strict carbohydrate restriction in the diet.
      C)
      Explain the potential long-term consequences of GDM on future pregnancies.
      D)
      Review blood glucose monitoring, meal planning, and the significance of follow-up appointments.
    3. A pregnant woman at 6 weeks gestation who has poorly managed pre-existing Type II Diabetes Mellitus visits her Obstetrician-Gynecologist to establish prenatal care. Which fetal complications are most common because of this maternal condition?
      A)
      Smaller than gestational age baby, respiratory disorder.
      B)
      Congenital malformations, macrosomia.
      C)
      Respiratory disorder, fetus with juvenile diabetes.
      D)
      Fetus with juvenile diabetes, macrosomia.
    4. The nurse is providing teaching for the patient whose one-hour glucose tolerance test result was 155 milligrams per deciliter. Which of the following would the nurse include in her teaching?
      A)
      She will require another one-hour glucose tolerance test in 4 weeks.
      B)
      She will need a three-hour glucose tolerance test.
      C)
      The failed one-hour glucose test is so high, a three-hour test is not required.
      D)
      The desired finding is a fasting glucose of less than 92 milligrams per deciliter.