NursGuru

    Exam Review

    1. A patient has microcytic hypochromic anemia. Which of the following pathogenic mechanisms may cause anemia in this patient? (Select all that apply.)
      (SATA)
      A)
      Decreased erythrocyte life span
      B)
      Failure of mechanisms of compensatory erythropoiesis
      C)
      Disturbances of the iron cycle
      D)
      Increased metabolic rate
      E)
      Swelling in the tissues
    2. A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis (IM). When the patient asks how he got this disease, how should the nurse respond? The most likely cause is:
      A)
      Adenovirus
      B)
      Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
      C)
      Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
      D)
      Toxoplasma gondii
    3. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with a diagnosis of polycythemia vera (PV). Which treatment should the nurse discuss with the patient?
      A)
      Therapeutic phlebotomy
      B)
      Restoration of blood volume by plasma expanders
      C)
      Administration of packed cells
      D)
      Iron therapy
    4. What is a priority assessment for Hodgkin lymphoma in children?
      A)
      Painless adenopathy in cervical nodes
      B)
      Significant bruising
      C)
      Weight gain
      D)
      Petechiae

    Exam Review

    1. A nurse is planning care for a child with iron deficiency anemia. Characteristics of iron deficiency anemia include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
      (SATA)
      A)
      It is most common between the ages of 6 months and 2 years.
      B)
      It is related to gender and growth factors.
      C)
      It is rare among teenagers.
      D)
      It is difficult to diagnose in early stages.
    2. Sickled cells will be removed from circulation mostly by the:
      A)
      Liver
      B)
      Pancreas
      C)
      Kidney
      D)
      Spleen
    3. An 82-year-old female was admitted to the hospital with confusion and severe hypotension. Her body's compensatory mechanisms are increased heart rate, vasoconstriction, and movement of large volumes of interstitial fluid to the vascular compartment. What kind of shock does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?
      A)
      Anaphylactic
      B)
      Hypovolemic
      C)
      Neurogenic
      D)
      Septic
    4. What term should the nurse use to document a detached blood clot?
      A)
      Thrombus
      B)
      Embolus
      C)
      Infarction

    Exam Review

    1. Foam cells in a fatty streak are:
      A)
      Deposited adipose cells
      B)
      Injured neutrophils
      C)
      Macrophages that engulf low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
      D)
      Lipid-laden mast cells
    2. An 8-week-old infant’s well-baby check reveals a murmur, and an echocardiogram shows a large ventricular septal defect. If left untreated, what condition could develop?
      A)
      Pulmonary hypertension
      B)
      Cyanosis
      C)
      Dysrhythmias
      D)
      Valve damage
    3. Coarctation of the aorta is the local narrowing of the aorta near the:
      A)
      Aortic valve
      B)
      Ductus arteriosus
      C)
      Diaphragm
      D)
      Bifurcation into the common iliac arteries
    4. A 5-year-old female is found to have hypertension during three separate visits to her primary care provider. The nurse would expect tests to suggest that the hypertension is secondary to:
      A)
      Renal disease
      B)
      Brain tumor
      C)
      Hypocalcemia

    Exam Review

    1. Airway obstruction contributing to increased airflow resistance and hypoventilation in asthma is caused by:
      A)
      Type II alveolar cell injury and decreased surfactant
      B)
      Alveolar fibrosis and pulmonary edema
      C)
      Mucous secretion and airway edema
      D)
      Collapse of the cartilaginous rings in the bronchi
    2. The most common cause of pulmonary edema is:
      A)
      Right heart failure
      B)
      Left heart failure
      C)
      Lung cancer
      D)
      Pulmonary embolism
    3. The patient diagnosed with tuberculosis can transmit this disease through:
      A)
      Skin contact
      B)
      Fecal-oral contact
      C)
      Airborne transmission
      D)
      Blood contact
    4. A 7-month-old presents with cystic fibrosis (CF) accompanied by failure to thrive and frequent loose, oily stools. Sweat testing confirms the diagnosis. Which of the following is characteristic of CF?
      A)
      Damage that targets the lungs and pancreas
      B)
      Thick mucous sputum
      C)
      Enzymes that degrade surfactant in the alveoli
      D)
      A toxic amount of electrolytes from secretory glands

    Exam Review

    1. A 2-week-old female presents with fever, productive cough, respiratory distress, and empyema. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?
      A)
      Viral pneumonia
      B)
      Bacterial pneumonia
      C)
      Staphylococcal pneumonia
      D)
      Mycoplasma pneumonia
    2. After nearly drowning, a 2-year-old developed acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following should the nurse assess the patient for?
      A)
      Decreased heart rate
      B)
      Increased lung compliance
      C)
      Increased surfactant production
      D)
      Hypoxemia
    3. When considering pyelonephritis, where is the site of the infection?
      A)
      Bladder
      B)
      Renal pelvis
      C)
      Renal tubules
      D)
      Glomerulus
    4. A 35-year-old who was severely burned is now demonstrating symptoms associated with acute tubular necrosis (ATN). Which form of renal failure is this patient experiencing?
      A)
      Prerenal
      B)
      Intrarenal
      C)
      Extrarenal
      D)
      Postrenal

    Exam Review

    1. An older male presents with flank pain and polyuria. Tests reveal that he has an enlarged prostate. Which type of renal failure is this patient at risk for?
      A)
      Prerenal
      B)
      Intrarenal
      C)
      Extrarenal
      D)
      Postrenal
    2. A 30-year-old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3–5 grams per day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is:
      A)
      Cystitis
      B)
      Chronic pyelonephritis
      C)
      Acute glomerulonephritis
      D)
      Renal calculi
    3. Which of the following clusters of symptoms would support a child’s diagnosis of glomerulonephritis?
      A)
      Pyuria, fever, and abdominal pain
      B)
      Proteinuria, hypotension, and ascites
      C)
      Dysuria, urinary frequency, and abdominal tenderness
      D)
      Gross hematuria, edema, and hypertension
    4. What term is used to describe a retrograde flow of urine from the urinary bladder into the ureters that is the cause of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
      A)
      Vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)
      B)
      Vesicourethral reflux
      C)
      Vesicoureteral influx
      D)
      Hydronephrosis