The nurse has just received a change-of-shift report on the following four clients. Which client should the nurse see first?a) A 30-year-old client with a subarachnoid hemorrhage 4 days ago who has nimodipine (Nimotop) scheduled.b) A 60-year-old client with right-sided weakness who received an infusion of tPA 8 hours ago.c) A 50-year-old client who has chronic atrial fibrillation and a dose of warfarin (Coumadin) due.d) A 40-year-old client who experienced a transient ischemic attack yesterday who has a dose of aspirin due.The correct answer is: b) A 60-year-old client with right-sided weakness who received an infusion of tPA 8 hours ago.Choice A reason: While the client with a subarachnoid hemorrhage needs close monitoring, the administration of nimodipine is essential but not immediately life-threatening compared to the post-tPA monitoring requirements.Choice B reason: This client received tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) 8 hours ago, which is critical for treating ischemic stroke. They are at a high risk of complications such as bleeding and must be monitored closely for any signs of adverse effects, making them the priority.Choice C reason: The client with chronic atrial fibrillation due for warfarin can be attended to after addressing more urgent needs. Chronic atrial fibrillation management is important, but it is less urgent than post-tPA care.Choice D reason: The client who experienced a transient ischemic attack and is due for aspirin is stable compared to the client who recently received tP