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    Exam Review

    1. Which describes the function of diffusion?
      A)
      It is the process by which a substance requires energy to pass through a membrane against a concentration gradient
      B)
      It is the process by which solvent molecules pass through a semipermeable membrane from a less concentrated solution into a more concentrated one
      C)
      It is the process by which molecules move from high-concentration areas to low-concentration areas.
      D)
      It is the process by which certain molecules pass through the plasma membrane with the help of carrier proteins.
    2. Which term describes a solution such as 0.9% NaCl (normal saline) relative to red blood cells?
      A)
      Isotonic
      B)
      Exotonic
      C)
      Hypotonic
      D)
      Hypertonic
    3. Consider the steps the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system [RAAS] goes through when there is a decrease in circulation or a drop in blood pressure, ordered from the earliest to the latest. What is the step directly after angiotensin I is produced?
      A)
      The kidney senses decreased perfusion
      B)
      Renin is released and cleaves angiotensinogen.
      C)
      Blood volume is raised and blood pressure is increased.
      D)
      Angiotensin-converting enzyme helps to produce angiotensin II in the lungs and to stimulate the adrenal gland to release aldosterone
    4. What are the symptoms of respiratory acidosis?
      A)
      Headache and tremors
      B)
      Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs
      C)
      Crackles and rhonchi upon auscultation
      D)
      Hyperactivity and reduced serum ionized calcium levels
    Page 1 of 13

    Exam Review

    1. Which disease is communicable and paralyzes muscles as early as six hours from exposure?
      A)
      Botulism
      B)
      Malaria
      C)
      Lyme disease
      D)
      West Nile virus
    2. What are B cells?
      A)
      A type of cell that makes hormones and enzymes
      B)
      Cells that eat pathogens and destroy them
      C)
      A type of white blood cell that makes antibodies
      D)
      Cells that release histamine during the inflammatory response
    3. What appropriately describes innate immunity?
      A)
      The general pathogen fighting system people are born with that does not change over time
      B)
      The process in which endothelial cells are separated away from each other, making the capillaries larger
      C)
      The process by which the body automatically reacts to tissue injured by trauma or bacteria
      D)
      The set of proteins that enhance the ability of the body to initiate the inflammatory response, attack a pathogen, and remove damaged cell material
    4. What are the characteristics of helper T cells?
      A)
      They bind to infected cells and are activated by cytokines.
      B)
      They activate B cells and produce small cells called cytokines
      C)
      They destroy infected cells by producing proteins targeting cell membranes.
      D)
      They are non-responsive during active infections.
    Page 2 of 13

    Exam Review

    1. What is an intron?
      A)
      An intervening sequence that does not encode for proteins
      B)
      The portion of the transcript that encodes for protein
      C)
      A person with a recessive allele that the dominant allele silences
      D)
      One of a pair of genes that is inherited from a parent
    2. Which accurately describes a chromosomal alteration?
      A)
      Hypertension is always linked to the Y chromosome and environmental factors.
      B)
      Turner's syndrome is a disorder in which a female has a completely or partially missing X chromosome.
      C)
      Type 2 DM (T2DM) is caused by family history, behavior, and other factors.
      D)
      Y chromosome as hemophilia is associated with the X chromosome.
    3. Which statement about Fetal Alcohol Exposure is correct?
      A)
      There is no known safe level of alcohol use during pregnancy or when trying to get pregnant.
      B)
      Alcohol prior to conceptions cannot impact the fetus.
      C)
      Alcohol exposure is most dangerous during the last trimester.
      D)
      Fetal alcohol exposure increases the likelihood of twins or other multiples.
    4. What are common signs associated with Down Syndrome?
      A)
      Crescent-shaped red blood cells and missing wisdom teeth
      B)
      Flattened nose and a single palmar crease on the hands
      C)
      Hypertension and hypertonia
      D)
      Widened eyes and a long neck
    Page 3 of 13

    Exam Review

    1. What are risk factors for an individual to develop melanoma?
      A)
      Having greater than 50 moles and green or blue eyes
      B)
      Intermittent claudication and diabetes
      C)
      Black or brown hair and darker pigmented skin
      D)
      Younger than 18 years of age and obesity
    2. A patient's record indicates a skin condition in which depigmentation appears on different parts of the body that are often exposed to sunlight. A skin biopsy reveals a lack of melanocytes. Which condition does this describe?
      A)
      Keratosis pilaris
      B)
      Vitiligo
      C)
      Rosacea
      D)
      Psoriasis
    3. A 19-year-old patient reports persistent itching and peeling dry skin between the first and second toes. The patient also has a burning sensation. An internal medicine practitioner prescribes antifungal ointment and wash for the next four weeks. Which condition does this patient have?
      A)
      Foot nevus
      B)
      Tinea pedis
      C)
      Foot blister
      D)
      Tinea unguium
    4. A patient has tremors, bradykinesia, and abnormal gait. The patient is taking anticholinergics; however, the symptoms are aggravated. A neurologist treats the patient with deep brain stimulation. Which condition is being described?
      A)
      Cerebral aneurysm
      B)
      Multiple sclerosis
      C)
      Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
      D)
      Parkinson disease
    Page 4 of 13

    Exam Review

    1. Which vision disorder is characterized by pressure on the optic nerve from elevated Intraocular pressure (IOP)?
      A)
      Glaucoma
      B)
      Cataracts
      C)
      Retinal detachment
      D)
      Retinoblastoma
    2. Which characteristic is associated with cerumen impaction?
      A)
      A callus that forms on an ossicle
      B)
      Inflammation of the innermost part of the ear
      C)
      Blockage of the ear canal due to built-up ear wax
      D)
      Accumulation of skin cells behind the tympanic membrane or within the mastoid bone
    3. Which conditions are common progressive neurodegenerative disorders?
      A)
      Parkinson's and Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
      B)
      Diabetic retinopathy and frequent inner ear infections
      C)
      Autism and Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
      D)
      Cerebral Aneurysm and Cerebrovascular Accident (CVA)
    4. What are common symptoms associated with a transient ischemic attack?
      A)
      Seizures and dilated (fixed) pupils
      B)
      Double-vision and disorientation
      C)
      Tinnitus and Diarrhea
      D)
      Clear speech and 2 + deep tendon reflex response
    Page 5 of 13

    Exam Review

    1. Which disorder is a cause of secondary hypertension?
      A)
      Tuberculosis
      B)
      Endocarditis
      C)
      Obstructive sleep apnea
      D)
      Polycythemia
    2. What are known triggers for vaso-occlusive crises, such as Sickle Cell Disease?
      A)
      Alkalosis and insomnia
      B)
      Reduced stress and warm environmental temperature
      C)
      Acidosis and dehydration
      D)
      High fat diet and hyperoxia
    3. A 50-year-old patient with essential hypertension was involved in a car accident and presented with sudden, severe back and abdominal pain due to local dilation of the abdominal artery. Which condition does this describe?
      A)
      Aneurysm
      B)
      Embolus
      C)
      Phlebitis
      D)
      Thrombus
    4. What are two of the physical examination findings associated with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
      A)
      Xanthelasma and Jaundice
      B)
      Itching and dark-colored
      C)
      Flank Pain and Arcus Senilis
      D)
      Edema and tenderness over a vein
    Page 6 of 13